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Share some CCIE 400-201 exam questions and answers below. Which statement about LDP Session Protection and LDP-IGP sync is true? A. Both LDP features cannot be used at the same time in a MPLS LDP enabled network B. LDP Session Protection re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP-IGP sync keeps the adjacency and label information in a down-up event C. LDP-IGP sync re-exchanges label information when a down-up event occurs; LDP Session Protection keeps the adjacency and label information in a down-up event D. Both LDP features must be used together to increase fast convergence on an MPLS LDP-enabled network Answer: D
What is one of the functions of a LISP ingress tunnel router? A. Ability to integrity-check LISP site registration messages using a SHA2-based HMAC algorithm B. Responsible for finding EID-to-RLOC mappings for all traffic destined for LISP-capable sites C. Accept encapsulation Map-request messages, decapsulate them to the MS responsible for the ETR authoritative for the requested EIDs D. Allows EIDs and RLOCs to communicate in a LISP site that contains EIDs in one address family and RLOCs in a different address family Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
The requirements is to copy traffic from switch A and switch B and to send it to a probe connected to switch D across the routed network. Which technology meets this requirement? A. NetFlow v5 B. ERSPAN C. NetFlow v9 D. RSPAN Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
CE6 cannot ping the loopback address of C7.An SP engineer notices a routing loop between PE2 and CE4. Which configuration must be applied on both PE routers to avoid the routing loop? A. Neighborsoo with the same SoO value on both PEs B. Neighborsoo with a different SoO value in each PE C. No neighbor as-override D. Neighbor allows-in Answer: A
Which multicast feature listens multicast conversations maintaining a map in order to control which ports receive specific multicast traffic? A. Bidirectional PIM B. Source Specific Multicast C. PIM assertion D. IGMP snooping Answer: D
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Which three options are benefits of the VPC peers switch feature?(Choose 3) A. It eliminates the recommendation to pin the STP root to the Vpc primary switch B. It allows a pair of the vPC peer devices to appear as a single STP root in the layer 2 C. After the peer link comes up, it performs an ARP bulk sync over CFSoE to the peer switch D. It improves convergences for layer 3 flows E. It simplifies STP configuration by configuration both Vpcs with the same STP priority Answer: ABE
Which option is an advantage of Cisco ACE virtual IP address tracking? A. Troubleshooting is possible between multiple routing domains and multiple service devices. B. Tracking is limited to a maximum of 500 tracked instances. C. New virtual IP address implementation has multiple network touchpoints. D. It can be used during application migration in which virtual IP addresses cannot be changed. Answer: D
Which solution is preferred for predictable traffic in a vMware environment running Cisco Nexus 1000v Series switches? A. end-host mode B. fabric failover mode C. client mode D. server mode E. standalone mode Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.
The L4-L7 Services were configured in the APIC, but you see this fault under Service Graph. Which action is the best way to resolve the problem? A. Reset the NetScaler load balancer. B. This is a configuration issuE. Make sure that unicast routing is enabled on the bridge domain that is associated with the interfaces that connected to the Citrix load balancer. C. Delete the service graph and create it again D. Reimport the device package Answer: B
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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below. Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA before the interval is set? A. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet updates. B. The LSA is added to the OSPF database. C. The LSA is ignored. D. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow its LSA packet updates. Answer: C
What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two) A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address. B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts. C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses. D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address. E. It uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices. Answer: BD
What are two reasons for an OSPF neighbor relationship to be stuck in exstart/exchange state? (Choose two) A. Both routers have the same router ID. B. There is an area ID mismatch C. There is an MTU mismatch D. There is an authentication mismatch E. Both routers have the same OSPF process ID Answer: A, C
Which IPv6 migration method allows IPv4-only devices to communicate with IPv6-only devices? A. GRE tunnel B. dual stack C. ISATAP tunnel D. NAT64 Answer: D
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two) A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router. B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub. C. NHRP disables multicast D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes. E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers. Answer: AB
Which statement about Cisco StackWise technology is true? A. Only the master switch acts as a forwarding processor B. All switches in a stack share configuration and routing information to behave as a single unit C. Every switch in a stack has its own independent and uncoordinated configuration file D. Removing switches can affect stack performance Answer: B
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Share some CCIE 400-051 exam questions and answers below. Refer to the exhibit.
A collaboration engineer is configuring dynamic call routing and DN learning between two Cisco UCM and Two Cisco UCM express. What two configuration tasks will support this? (Choose two) A. CME B should be configure as service advertisement forwarder only B. CME B should be configure as service advertisement client and forwarder C. Router A and CME B should be configure to use the same autonomous system number D. Router A and CME B should be configure to use the same autonomous system number E. Router B and CME B should be configure to use the same autonomous system number F. CME B should be configured as service advertisement client only. Answer: BC
Refer to the exhibit.
A cisco collaboration engineer discovers that an instance of IOS media termination point (MTP) could not maintain stable registration with CUCM. Call manager traces is showing in the exhibit. What is the reason for the flapping registration? A. The CCM version on IOS configuration does not match the CUCM version. B. The IOS MTP is experiencing high CPU and is missing its keep-alive. C. A Firewall is blocking port 2000 intermittently between IOS Device and CUCM. D. Another IOS Media device is attempting to register with the same name. Answer: D
Which statement about using the Answer File Generator to load a Cisco Unified Communications virtual machine is true? A. You must copy the output text to a file named platformConfig.txt. B. Each host should be copied to its own configuration file. C. The answer file can be used only when performing the new identity process to load the Cisco Unified Communications virtual machines. D. The configuration file should be placed inside an ISO file and mounted on the virtual machine. Answer: B
Two Jabber clients are unable to pass instant messages between each other. What is the appropriate next step? A. Review XCP router logs. B. Open port 5060 on the firewalls between the PCs and the IM&P servers. C. Review SIP proxy logs. D. Review Help > Show Connection Status in each Jabber client, and pull logs as necessary. Answer: A
The Video engineer wants to enable the LATM codec to allow video endpoint to communicate over audio with other IP devices. Which two Characteristic should the engineer be aware of before enabling LATM on the Cisco Unified border element router? (Choose two) A. Dual tone Multifrequency interworking with LATM codec is not supported. B. Codec transcoding between LATM and other codecs is not supported. C. SIP UPDATE massage outlined in RFC3311 is not supported. D. Box-to-Box High availability support feature is not supported. E. Configure LATM under a voice class or dial peer is not supported. F. Basic calls using flow-around or flow-through is not supported. Answer: AB
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Which of the following options belong to the life cycle phase of the WLAN project? (Multiple choice) A. Planning B. deployment C. upgrade D. Operation and maintenance E. Troubleshooting Answer: ABD
Which of the following is typical WLAN high-density access scenario? A. Wireless cash register B. Mobile ward-round C. stadiums D. asset location Answer: C
In Huawei WLAN network program, the 5W controlled by fine strategy, what kind of control does What refer to? A. Permission control based on user role B. Time-based access control C. Location-based access control D. Policy control based on terminal type Answer: D
Which of the following statements on the indoor distribution devices are right? (Multiple choice) A. combiner can compound multiplexed input signal to one way to output, reverse filter and separate the mixed signal B. One signal can be divided into multi-channel signal by Power splitter to output C. The coupler is a power divider with unequal output power that removes the desired signal energy from the mainline to the remote antenna and allocates more signal energy to the proximal antenna D. WLAN indoor distribution network generally use microstrip power splitter, relative to the cavity power splitter, power is low, and cost is low. Answer: ABD
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below. When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? A. managing the increase connected devices B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability C. providing device choice and support D. enforcing company usage policies Answer: D
A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network? A. UNII-3 channels B. UNII-1 channels C. 802.11b channels D. 2.4 GHz channels E. UMII-2 channels F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13 Answer: E
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue? A. The client devices do not support WPA. B. The client devices do not support CCXv5. C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller. Answer: C
When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point? A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK C. KCK, KEK, TK D. KCK, KEK, MIC key Answer: A
An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data? A. Client Summary B. Posture Status Count C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics D. Mobility Client Summary Answer: D
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-370 exam questions and answers below. An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications? A.rogue AP containment B.RF detection C.switch port tracing D.wire detection E.Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services Answer: A
Which channel width is the maximum that can be obtained by bonding two 802.11 ac subchannels according to US regulations? A.160 MHz B.120 MHz C.84 MHz D.240 MHz Answer: A
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages? A.debug pm pki enable B.debug cert events enable C.debug capwap events enable D.debug capwap packet enable E.debug capwap errors enable Answer: E
While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting? A.informational B.major C.minor D.warning E.critical Answer: D
A wireless user is experiencing connectivity issues with their Mac OS laptop. If the Mac is exhibiting the behavior of a "sticky client," how can the tech verity which AP the user is currently connected to? A.Hold shift while clicking the wireless icon. B.Hold option while clicking the wireless icon. C.Hold control while clicking the wireless icon. D.Hold command while clicking the wireless icon. Answer: B
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